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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

11.06.2025 09:24

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Do you consider masturbating to porn cheating if you are married?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

There's no rule.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

What should you answer when someone says to you in French, "au plaisir de vous revoir"?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Why is there so much evil in the world?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.